#38, McNugget Lovers
Posted by Paul Younan on Mar-21-2002 at 09:54 PM
In response to message #37
Shlama Akhi Yukhanan,> I’m use to seeing
>things backwords- reading to much
>Aramaic I quess
Backwards ? Isn't English writing a child of Latin (and therefore Greek) ? Greek was derived from Semitic writing, which was right-to-left.
So which one is backwards ? 
>so yes Maryah is reserved for deity,
>so what.
If that's a question - the answer is "SO EVERYTHING".
>Here are some
>Aramaic glosses I have found
>in the Peshitta that you
>can comment on:
You know I love to comment.
>(1) ‘he Messiah of the LORD’
>Luke 2:26 (not a gloss
>but that deity is MarYah)
The meaning of "Messiah of MarYah":

>(2) however when we go to
>Luke 4:41 ‘the Messiah’ has been added
>to ‘the son of God’
>which no known Greek text
>has. Therefore a gloss or
>exalted text, WHY?
You asked two irrelevant questions. So what if no known Greek text has 'The Messiah' ?
I don't scrutinize the contents of the Peshitta based on what the "Greek Texts (plural)" may or may not have!
How's about instead of calling it a "gloss" or an "exalted text" - how's about calling it the "original text" and calling the fact that it's missing from Greek manuscripts a "deletion", or as you so elequently put it - a "burp" ?
What do I care what the Greek mess reads like ?
>(3) Go to
>Luke 5:3 ‘who is Keepa’ explains
>who this ‘Shimon’ is, again
>not found in any Greek
>text and the verse in
>the traditional text is maybe
>awkward at least something here
>is paraphrase.
Again - why should I care what the Greek mess reads like ? Why are you approaching me with this argument - using the Greek mss (shorthand for 'mess') as authoritative ?
Should I also criticize the Peshitta if certain teachings of the Messiah are not recorded in the Quran ?
This is a major difference between you and I. As far as I'm concerned - I could care less what's in or what's not in the Greek texts. Or the Ethiopian texts, or the Coptic texts, or the Latin texts, or the Swahili texts, or your buddy King James.
They all derive from one gigantic mess. Westcott, Hort, Nestle and Aland all nobly tried in vain to clean it up and present it to the world as a polished gem. Too bad it's a Chicken McNugget - they wasted their time.
I have ONE text which just happens to insignificantly be in the same language of the Messiah and His Apostles. I compare it to none else except to demonstrate scientifically, beyond a shadow of a doubt, that the text that's been revered since the beginning in the East is the very same text that came from the Apostles hands and is the very same text which underlies the mess of versions that have plagued us since the day Zorba tried to play scribe.
Attempting to compare the Peshitta reading to the Greek readings with me means your argument automatically falls upon deaf ears.
Are you drunk ?
>(4) Now all potato
>splitters might like this one
>at Luke4:18
> ‘he (God) has anointed (by
>his spirit or christened) me
>(Jesus)’.
Yes, here's the chart again in case you still don't understand who was "christened":

>WOW! Oh oh! Read on.
>‘he (God) has sent (apostolized)
>me (Jesus)’
When I first made these charts I had no idea how useful they would be, or how stubborn you would be. Here's the meaning of that verse:

>The Greek burns the straw
>man here by splitting the
>verb into two ‘echrise me’
>and ‘apestalche me’.
So ?????
>Oh yes,
>did I mention the gloss
>in Acts 1:1
>(5) ‘(our Lord) Eshoa (the Messiah),
>the words in brackets have
>been added in the Peshitta
>and not found in any
>Greek text, Not KING JAMES
>either.
Uh-oh ! It's not in the KING JAMES ? If THAT'S the case then I'm going to contact the Patriarch and personally advise him to issue an order to trash the Peshitta and adopt the King James version in our tradition. Thanks to King James of England for pointing out the error of our ways.
>I’m making a list of others
>but these will suffice for
>now. Without your interlinear, I
>wouldn’t be able to do
>this.
Glad to be of service.
Fk^rwbw 0ml4
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