In reply to message #1
Drywood, > According to Keith(a Protestant) >and Andrew (a jew turned >Nazarene something) This is very disrespectful to Akh Andrew. I challenge you to debate Andrew on the linguistic issues and not slander his faith. Im not a >Christian because I belong to >a different fellowship Forgive me for accepting the apostles creed. Now getting to >your question John 20:28. so the >Greek you will agree is >my kurios my theos. Well, close enough. >Now Trinitarians as yourselves use >this verse to prove deity >of Christ. But Jesus had >just told Mary a few >verses before in verse 17 >that he ascends to his >theos. Since Jesus was >to ascend to his deity >and the disciples deity, then >clearly he was not himself >very deity; Very deity??? Yes, He IS VERY< VERY< VERY< DEITY. I see; you're saying he was delusional. M'shikha was not schizophrenic. I will translate what I asked you to in the first place 'Theos hn ho logos' "The Word was (Gr. imperfect tense-continuous past action) GOD". I ask again. What other entity is without origin? Because he recognized what >mar Paul says in 1 >Cor 11:3, the head of >Christ is deity. Therefore, the >Son is not co-equal with >the Father. You mean like John 10:30 'I and the Father, we are one'. Ouch, that's gotta hurt.
Phillipians 2:6-9 is a description of his his divesture. GOD exalted GOD 'after' divesture. Yes there is an order in the Trinity. God even raised him from the dead. Divested. Romans 1 God forsook him. Divested. Matt 27. And yet after exaltation it is in him where 'the fullness of the God-head dwells bodily'. Col 2:9. Thae FAT lady has sung. This is >my answer to your question >using your lexicon and your >source, which reads the same >in my KING JAMES. Sorry. My text is not based on the textus receptus as it is considered unreliable. Shlama, Yaqub
|